1.Consider these two vectors A = 2i + 3j and B = -6i + 4j. The angle between these two vectors is: (SIBA MDCAT 2025)
- 60°
- 90°
- 120°
- 180°
Show answer
Correct answer: (b) 90°
The scalar product is $-12+12=0$, so the vectors are at right angles.
161 Physics MCQs that appeared in MDCAT 2025, arranged unit by unit in syllabus order. Tap “Show answer” under any question for the correct option and a short solution.
1.Consider these two vectors A = 2i + 3j and B = -6i + 4j. The angle between these two vectors is: (SIBA MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (b) 90°
The scalar product is $-12+12=0$, so the vectors are at right angles.
2.A body moves along a semicircular path of radius 10 m from one end of the diameter to the other. The ratio of distance to displacement is: (SIBA MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (c) π : 2
The path is $\pi r$ and the displacement is the diameter $2r$, so the ratio is $\pi:2$.
3.A person moves 600 m towards north then 300 m towards south. Its displacement to distance ratio is: (SZABMU MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (a) 1:3
The displacement is $300\,\mathrm{m}$ and the distance walked is $900\,\mathrm{m}$, a ratio of $1:3$.
4.A displacement time graph is a straight line inclined up at angle of 45° with X-axis, velocity of body according to this graph is: (SIBA MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (c) Constant
The slope of a displacement time graph is the velocity, and a straight line has a constant slope.
5.A car starts from rest and moves with a uniform acceleration of 3m/s^2. What will be its velocity after 5 seconds? (KMU MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (c) 15m/s
$v=at=3\times5$, which is $15\,\mathrm{m\,s^{-1}}$.
6.Unequal changes occurring in velocity of a body is called (SZABMU MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (c) variable acceleration
Unequal changes of velocity in equal times are a variable acceleration.
7.A ball is thrown into the air with certain velocity v making an angle θ with horizontal. If air resistance is neglected, then at maximum height its velocity is: (UHS MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (d) Minimum but not zero
The vertical component is spent at the top, but the horizontal component is carried right through.
8.A projectile is launched in air with certain angle; its velocity is maximum at: (UHS MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (a) Point of projection
The projectile is slowest at the top and fastest where it started, before gravity has taken any of the vertical component.
9.Which of the following statement about projectile motion is CORRECT? (KMU MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (c) At the highest point, the vertical velocity of the projectile is zero, but the horizontal velocity remains unchanged
Gravity acts only downwards, so it empties the vertical component at the top and leaves the horizontal one alone.
10.If the horizontal range of a projectile becomes half of its maximum possible horizontal range, the probable angle of projection is; (UHS MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (a) 15º
The range is largest at $45^{\circ}$, and half of it needs $\sin2\theta=0.5$, so $\theta$ is $15^{\circ}$.
11.Angle at which maximum range of projectile is achieved? (NUMS MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (b) 45°
The range goes as $\sin2\theta$, which is largest at $\theta=45^{\circ}$.
12.A body is projected with speed v making an angle θ with the horizontal and covers horizontal range R. If its speed is doubled, the new range will be: (SIBA MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (d) 4R
The range goes as the square of the speed, so doubling the speed gives four times the range.
13.Two balls thrown with equal speeds but at different angles cover equal horizontal distance. If one is thrown at an angle of 40°, then the angle of projection of the other is: (SZABMU MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (d) 50°
Two angles adding to $90^{\circ}$ give the same range, so the other is $50^{\circ}$.
14.A passenger standing in a stationary bus. When the bus suddenly starts moving forward, the passenger falls backward. Which phenomenon best explains this observation? (KMU MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (c) Inertia
The passenger keeps the state of rest while the floor moves forward under them.
15.Product of force and time is equal to: (NUMS MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (b) Change in momentum
Force times time is impulse, and impulse equals the change in momentum.
16.A 150 kg car has its velocity reduced from 20 m/s to 10 m/s in 3.0 sec. How large was the average retarding force? (SIBA MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (a) 500 N
$F=m\Delta v/\Delta t=150\times10/3$, which is $500\,\mathrm{N}$.
17.A ball of mass m strikes a wall and rebounds with the same speed in the opposite direction, taking the initial direction as positive, the change in the momentum of the ball is: (SIBA MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (c) -2mv
The momentum goes from $mv$ to $-mv$, a change of $-2mv$.
18.A canon is placed on a smooth surface. When it fires a shell, the canon moves backward, this recoil occurs due to: (UHS MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (c) Newton's third law of motion
The shell is pushed forward and the cannon takes an equal and opposite push backwards.
19.A 0.02kg bullet moving at 300m/s embeds itself in a 2 kg block at rest on a smooth surface. What is the velocity of the block-bullet system just after impact? (KMU MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (b) 3m/s
Momentum is conserved, so $0.02\times300$ is shared by $2.02\,\mathrm{kg}$, giving about $3\,\mathrm{m\,s^{-1}}$.
20.If a body having mass m1 (2 kg), moving with 5 m/s approaches another mass, m2 (3 kg) with speed of 1 m/s in same direction, relative speed of approach is 4 m/s. Relative speed of separation after collision will be: (UHS MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (a) 4 m/s
In a perfectly elastic collision the relative speed of separation equals the relative speed of approach.
21.A body of mass 2 kg moving with velocity 3 m/s collides with a body of mass 1 kg at rest. If they stick together, their common velocity after collision is: (SZABMU MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (b) 2 m/s
Momentum is conserved, so $2\times3$ is shared by $3\,\mathrm{kg}$, giving $2\,\mathrm{m\,s^{-1}}$.
22.Work done is positive if angle is: (NUMS MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (a) 0° < θ < 90°
$W=Fd\cos\theta$ is positive while the cosine is positive, that is for angles under $90^{\circ}$.
23.The work done by centripetal force is: (NUMS MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (c) Zero
The centripetal force is always at right angles to the motion, so it does no work.
24.When force and displacement are in opposite direction then the work done is said to be: (SIBA MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (b) Negative
With $\theta=180^{\circ}$ the cosine is $-1$, so the work is negative.
25.If P is the momentum of an object and m is its mass, then its kinetic energy is: (UHS MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (b) P^2/2m
From $p=mv$, $v=p/m$, so $K=\tfrac12 mv^2$ becomes $p^2/2m$.
26.Earth receives large amount of energy directly from: (UHS MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (c) Sun
Sunlight is the energy the Earth receives directly; wind and water carry it only after it has arrived.
27.A 0.5 kg ball moving at 6 m/s has kinetic energy (UHS MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (a) 9 J
$K=\tfrac12\times0.5\times6^2$, which is $9\,\mathrm{J}$.
28.If velocity is doubled, what happens to kinetic energy: (NUMS MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (c) Quadruples
$K=\tfrac12mv^2$ goes as the square of the speed, so twice the speed is four times the energy.
29.The work done on a body is stored in it in the form of: (SZABMU MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (b) Energy
The work done on a body appears as its energy.
30.The work done by the gravitational force on an object as it moves from a reference level to a higher point is (UHS MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (b) Always negative
Gravity acts downwards while the body rises, so the force and the displacement are opposed and the work is negative.
31.A 5kg body falls from the height of 30m towards the ground. All its potential energy is converted into heat on impact. What is the heat energy produced? (KMU MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (c) 1470J
$mgh=5\times9.8\times30$, which is $1470\,\mathrm{J}$.
32.Potential energy decreases in the process of: (SIBA MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (c) Releasing a stretched spring
A stretched spring gives up its stored energy as it returns to its natural length.
33.A diver of mass m is swimming at a depth h below the sea level. If the reference level is taken at sea level, the gravitational potential energy of the diver is: (SIBA MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (c) -mgh
The diver is below the reference level, so the potential energy is negative.
34.The rate of doing work at any instant of time is called: (KMU MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (b) Instantaneous power
Instantaneous power is the rate of doing work at a given moment.
35.Two students, A and B, each carry a 20kg load to the top of a long staircase. Student A takes 10sec, while student B takes 20sec. Which statement is CORRECT? (KMU MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (c) Both students do the same amount of work, but student A uses more power
The same load raised the same height is the same work, and the one who takes half the time delivers twice the power.
36.1 kWh is equal to: (NUMS MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (b) 3.6 MJ
A kilowatt for an hour is $1000\times3600$ joules, that is $3.6\,\mathrm{MJ}$.
37.A constant force F acts on a body and displaces it by distance Δd in a time Δt. The rate at which force is doing work is: (SIBA MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (c) F x Δd/Δt
Power is work over time, that is $F\Delta d/\Delta t$.
38.An angular displacement of 90° is equal to: (UHS MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (a) One-fourth revolution
One revolution is $360^{\circ}$, so $90^{\circ}$ is a quarter of it.
39.The angle formed at the center of a circle as a body moves from one position to another is: (SIBA MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (a) Angular displacement
The angle swept at the centre is the angular displacement.
40.A body moving in a circle, half revolution in terms of radians is equivalent to: (SIBA MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (a) π
A whole revolution is $2\pi$ radians, so half of one is $\pi$.
41.The true statement about angular displacement is: (SZABMU MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (b) It is treated as vector for small rotations
Only for small rotations does angular displacement obey the commutative law of vector addition.
42.π radians are equivalent to (SZABMU MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (d) 180°
A half revolution is $\pi$ radians, that is $180^{\circ}$.
43.If an object is moving anticlockwise along a circular path, in a horizontal plane on a page then the direction of its angular velocity is: (KMU MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (c) Perpendicular to the plane and pointing out of the page
By the right hand rule an anticlockwise rotation gives an angular velocity out of the page.
44.Direction of angular velocity can be found by: (NUMS MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (a) Right-hand rule
Curl the fingers along the rotation and the thumb gives the direction of the angular velocity.
45.If a particle moves along a circular path of radius r with angular displacement θ (in radians), then the arc length s is given by: (KMU MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (a) rθ
With the angle in radians the arc is $s=r\theta$.
46.In circular motion, if angular displacement is kept constant, decreasing the radius will: (SIBA MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (c) Decrease linear displacement
With $s=r\theta$ and the angle fixed, a smaller radius gives a shorter arc.
47.A ball of weight Fg is falling vertically downward through air. If the drag force acting on it at some instant is Fd, what is the Fnet (net force) on the ball? (KMU MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (b) Fg - Fd
Drag acts upwards against the fall, so the net downward force is the weight less the drag.
48.A body of mass 10 kg is falling through a viscous medium and reached terminal velocity. The net force on the body will be: (SIBA MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (a) 0 N
At terminal velocity the drag and upthrust balance the weight, so there is no net force.
49.When a droplet reaches terminal velocity, its acceleration is: (SIBA MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (a) Zero
Terminal velocity is a steady velocity, so the acceleration has fallen to zero.
50.A fluid is flowing through a tube, to undergo transition from laminar to turbulent flow it's velocity must be: (UHS MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (c) greater than critical velocity
Flow stays laminar up to the critical velocity and turns turbulent once that value is passed.
51.Most kinds of fluid flow are turbulent rather than laminar because of: (KMU MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (c) High velocities
Beyond the critical speed the layers break up, and most real flows are above it.
52.In laminar flow of fluid, its adjacent layers: (SIBA MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (c) Slide smoothly pass each other
In laminar flow the layers glide over one another without mixing.
53.An incompressible fluid flows through a pipe that becomes narrower in one section. The fluid speed in that region increases in that region to maintain: (UHS MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (c) constant mass flow rate
What enters the pipe each second must leave it, so a narrower section is passed at a greater speed.
54.According to law of continuity, when the cross-sectional area of a pipe decreases, the fluid velocity: (KMU MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (a) Increases
The product of area and speed is constant, so a narrower pipe is passed faster.
55.Water flows through a pipe of 0.02 m^2 with a speed of 3 m/s. The pipe narrows to 0.01 m^2. The speed in narrow section is: (SZABMU MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (c) 6 m/s
$A_1v_1=A_2v_2$, so $0.02\times3=0.01\times v_2$ and $v_2$ is $6\,\mathrm{m\,s^{-1}}$.
56.In a pipe of varying cross-section as fluid enters the narrower region, it exhibits: (UHS MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (b) high velocity, low pressure
Bernoulli’s equation trades pressure for speed, so the fast narrow section is the low pressure one.
57.Water flows steadily through a pipe that gradually narrows. At the wider end, the velocity of water is 1m/s, at the narrower end, the velocity is 3m/s. Which statement is CORRECT about the pressure in the narrower end compared to the wider end? (KMU MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (a) Pressure is lower at the narrow end because velocity is higher
Bernoulli’s equation trades pressure for speed, so the faster narrow end is at the lower pressure.
58.The increase in kinetic energy associated with decreased pressure of a fluid in a horizontal pipe is a consequence of the: (SIBA MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (a) Bernoulli's Principle
Bernoulli’s principle is the statement that pressure falls where the speed of a fluid rises.
59.The curved shape of an airplane wing causes air to move faster over the top surface. This leads to: (UHS MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (b) lower pressure on the top
Faster air over the curved upper surface leaves a lower pressure there, and the difference is the lift.
60.In the human circulatory system, turbulent blood flow is most likely to occur when the: (SZABMU MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (c) Blood flows through a clogged vessel
A deposit narrows the vessel and roughens it, so the speed rises past the critical value and the flow breaks up.
61.Mechanical waves cannot travel through outer space because they: (UHS MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (d) lose transmission without interacting particles
A mechanical wave is carried by the particles of a medium, and space has none to pass it on.
62.What is the necessary condition of a wave motion? (KMU MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (a) The medium must be elastic
A wave passes on because each displaced particle is pulled back and pulls its neighbour, which needs an elastic medium.
63.A progressive wave is one which: (KMU MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (b) Carries energy across the medium
A progressive wave carries energy forward through the medium without carrying the medium with it.
64.In progressive waves, energy is transferred from one point to another through: (SZABMU MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (b) Oscillatory motion of particles
Each particle oscillates about its own place and hands the energy on to the next.
65.The waves among the following which require a material medium for their propagation are: (SZABMU MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (d) Infrasonic waves
Infrasonic waves are sound, and sound needs a medium; the other three are electromagnetic.
66.A wave has velocity 300m/s and frequency 100Hz. If the medium is changed so that velocity doubles but frequency remains constant, the new wavelength will be: (KMU MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (b) Doubled
With the frequency fixed, $\lambda=v/f$ doubles when the speed doubles.
67.If 20 waves pass a point in 2 seconds and with a speed of 5m/s, then the wavelength of wave is: (SZABMU MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (a) 0.5 m
Twenty waves in two seconds is $10\,\mathrm{Hz}$, and $\lambda=v/f=5/10$ is $0.5\,\mathrm{m}$.
68.A longitudinal wave has a frequency of 500 Hz and wavelength of 0.6 m, its speed is: (SZABMU MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (c) 300 m/s
$v=f\lambda=500\times0.6$, which is $300\,\mathrm{m\,s^{-1}}$.
69.The motion of transverse waves involves particle's vibration: (SIBA MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (c) Perpendicular to wave propagation
In a transverse wave the particles move at right angles to the direction the wave travels.
70.Newton's original formula underestimated speed of sound in air because he: (SIBA MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (b) Assumed isothermal
Newton took the compressions to be isothermal; Laplace corrected them to adiabatic and got the right speed.
71.The option that shows the conditions used by Laplace for connecting the velocity of sound is options medium used thermodynamics process 1 solid adiabatic 2 liquids isobaric 3 gas adiabatic 4 gas isothermal (SZABMU MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (c) 3
Laplace took the compressions and rarefactions in a gas to be too quick for heat to escape, that is adiabatic.
72.Speed of sound in air increases with: (KMU MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (a) Higher temperature, higher humidity
Sound travels faster in warmer air, and water vapour is lighter than the air it displaces, so humidity helps too.
73.If the speed of sound is measured at sea level and at the top of a mountain, both at the same temperature, it will be: (SZABMU MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (c) The same at both places
The speed of sound depends on the temperature of the air, not on its pressure or density.
74.If two speakers emit sound at same frequency and phase, maximum loudness occurs when: (UHS MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (b) Path difference = λ
Constructive interference needs a path difference of a whole number of wavelengths.
75.Two waves identical traveling in the same medium are superposed: (NUMS MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (a) Interference
Two waves of the same kind crossing in one medium add displacement to displacement, which is interference.
76.The path difference between two sound waves coming from a coherent source of wavelength 50 cm at a point is 100 cm. The superposition of the waves at that point produces: (SIBA MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (c) Loudness
A path difference of $100\,\mathrm{cm}$ is exactly two wavelengths, so the waves arrive in step and reinforce.
77.The phenomenon of interference of sound waves requires: (SIBA MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (b) Two coherent sources
A steady pattern needs two sources of the same frequency holding a constant phase relation.
78.When two identical waves arrive in phase at same point and in a region at the same time the resultant displacement is equal to (SZABMU MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (c) Sum of their displacements
Waves in step add displacement to displacement, which is constructive interference.
79.In a stationary wave the point that undergoes zero acceleration is: (SZABMU MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (a) Node
A node never moves, so its displacement, velocity and acceleration are all zero.
80.Stationary waves are formed in a stretched string of 2m length, such that two vibrating loops are formed. The distance between consecutive nodes formed is: (SZABMU MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (b) 1 m
Two loops in $2\,\mathrm{m}$ make each loop $1\,\mathrm{m}$, and a loop runs from one node to the next.
81.The energy of a Simple Harmonic oscillation depends upon the: (UHS MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (d) amplitude
The total energy of an oscillator is $\tfrac12 k x_0^2$, which depends on the amplitude alone.
82.When a particle executing simple harmonic motion moves from the mean position to the extreme position, its kinetic energy: (KMU MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (b) Decreases continuously and becomes zero at the extreme position
The speed falls to zero at the extreme position, and with it the kinetic energy.
83.A particle is moving in a uniform circular path whose projection is executing simple harmonic motion on horizontal diameter. The ratio of instantaneous velocity to the maximum velocity of the projection while passing through the center is: (SZABMU MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (a) 1 : 1
The projection is fastest as it passes the centre, so the instantaneous speed there is the maximum speed.
84.Heat will spontaneously flow from: (KMU MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (c) High to low temperature
Heat of itself passes only from the hotter body to the colder one.
85.During rubbing of hands, internal energy: (NUMS MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (a) Increases
Friction turns the work of rubbing into internal energy, so the hands warm.
86.During the drilling of a metal surface the drill bit heats up. This heat comes from the: (SIBA MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (b) Work done against friction
The work done against friction is turned into internal energy, which raises the temperature of the bit.
87.When thermal energy is transferred from a hot object to a cold one, the change occurs in the hot object as: (SZABMU MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (b) Decrease in internal energy
The hot body gives up heat, so its internal energy falls.
88.Bursting of tire is an example of which process? (NUMS MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (a) Adiabatic
The air escapes too fast for any heat to be exchanged, so the expansion is adiabatic.
89.A gas expands from 1 m^3 to 3 m^3 at constant pressure of 2 Pa. Work done is: (SIBA MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (b) 4J
$W=P\Delta V=2\times2$, which is $4\,\mathrm{J}$.
90.According to First law of thermodynamics when heat flows into a system and no work is done the internal energy of the system must (UHS MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (a) Increase
With no work done, all the heat taken in goes into the internal energy, which therefore rises.
91.Which of the following has highest specific heat capacity? (NUMS MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (c) Water
Water has an unusually high specific heat, about $4200\,\mathrm{J\,kg^{-1}\,K^{-1}}$.
92.At a constant Pressure (Cp) and Volume (Cv), an ideal gas has C p - C v = R Then Cp will be? (KMU MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (c) 5/2 R
For a monatomic ideal gas $C_v=\tfrac32R$, so $C_p=C_v+R=\tfrac52R$.
93.If a plastic sheet of relative permittivity 2.5 is inserted between two-point charges placed in vacuum, then the electrostatic force between them: (UHS MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (b) Decreases by a factor of 2.5
The medium divides the force by its relative permittivity, so the force falls to $1/2.5$ of its value.
94.If the distance between two charges is halved and magnitude of charges are also doubled, then the force between these charges becomes: (UHS MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (d) sixteen times
Doubling both charges multiplies the force by four, and halving the separation by four again.
95.Coulomb's law fits well into: (KMU MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (c) Newton's 3rd law
The two charges push or pull each other equally and oppositely, which is the third law.
96.The force between two charges is 28 N in vacuum. If paraffin wax of relative permittivity 2.8 is introduced between the charges as a medium, then the force reduces to: (SIBA MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (d) 10 N
The medium divides the force by its relative permittivity, and $28/2.8$ is $10\,\mathrm{N}$.
97.Two equal charges experience a certain force when placed in vacuum. When the charges are placed in a medium, the force becomes 1/4th. The dielectric constant of the medium is: (SZABMU MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (c) 4
The medium divides the force by its dielectric constant, so a quarter of the force means a constant of four.
98.The electric field at a point due to two equal and opposite charges is 100 N/C. If the magnitude of each charge is doubled then the electric field at that point becomes: (UHS MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (c) 200 N/C
The field of each charge is proportional to that charge, so doubling both doubles the resultant.
99.For two equal positive charges, the electric field weakest? (UHS MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (a) Midway between them
Midway between two equal positive charges the two fields are equal and opposite, so they cancel.
100.The electric field at a point is defined as: (KMU MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (d) Force per unit positive test charge
Field intensity is the force per unit positive charge placed at the point.
101.The point where the electric field is zero between two opposite charge lies: (SIBA MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (d) Nowhere between them
Between unlike charges both fields point the same way, so they add and never cancel.
102.A point lies 3m from a +5µC charge and 4m from a -3µC charge. The most appropriate direction of the net electric field at this point is directed: (SIBA MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (a) Away from +5µC charge
The nearer and larger charge gives much the stronger field, so the resultant points away from it.
103.The electric field at a point due to a point charge is 200N/C. If suppose a -4C test charge is placed at that point then the magnitude of electric field and electric force on it is: (SIBA MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (c) 200N/C and 800N
The field is a property of the source, so it stays $200\,\mathrm{N\,C^{-1}}$, and $F=qE=4\times200$ is $800\,\mathrm{N}$.
104.If a test charge of magnitude 2C experience forces of 100N and 200N at two points A and B in an electric field respectively. The ratio of electric fields at A to that of B is: (SZABMU MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (b) 1:2
The field is $F/q$ with the same $q$, so the ratio of fields is the ratio of forces, $1:2$.
105.If the surface charge density of an infinite sheet increases by 25%, the electric field intensity: (UHS MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (a) Increases by 25%
The field of an infinite sheet is proportional to the surface charge density, so it rises in the same proportion.
106.Electric field intensity of infinite charge sheet: (NUMS MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (d) σ/(2ε0)
The field of an infinite sheet is $\sigma/2\varepsilon_0$ and does not fall off with distance.
107.The work done in moving a unit positive charge from one point to another while keeping the charge in electrostatic equilibrium is called: (KMU MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (d) Potential difference
The work per unit charge in carrying it between two points is the potential difference.
108.The electric potential at a point due to a point charge is 100J/C. If a test charge of magnitude 1C placed at that point is replaced with a 2C charge, then the physical quantity that will change is: (SZABMU MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (c) Electric Potential Energy of the system
The potential belongs to the source charge, but the energy $qV$ of the charge placed there doubles with $q$.
109.The electric potential at a distance r is given by the formula: (NUMS MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (a) V = kq/r
The potential of a point charge at a distance $r$ is $kq/r$.
110.The energy stored in a capacitor is: (NUMS MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (b) QV/2
The charge builds up as the voltage rises, so the stored energy is $\tfrac12QV$, not $QV$.
111.The unit of RC in case of charging a capacitor is: (SZABMU MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (b) Seconds
Ohms times farads give seconds, which is why $RC$ is called the time constant.
112.If the potential difference (V) across a conductor is doubled, keeping resistance (R) constant, the power dissipated (P) becomes: (KMU MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (c) Four times
$P=V^2/R$, so twice the voltage across the same resistance dissipates four times the power.
113.If voltage across a resistor is doubled then its resistance will become: (temperature and physical state of the conductor remains constant). (SZABMU MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (d) Remains constant
Resistance is a property of the conductor, so it is unchanged; the current doubles instead.
114.High slope of Ohm's law graph means (SZABMU MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (a) Low resistance
On a graph of current against potential difference the slope is $1/R$, so a steep line means a small resistance.
115.What will potential difference, if a wire has resistance of 10Ω and current 2A flow through it : (SZABMU MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (c) 20V
$V=IR=2\times10$, which is $20\,\mathrm{V}$.
116.The reciprocal of the resistivity of a material is called its: (UHS MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (b) conductivity
Conductivity is the reciprocal of resistivity.
117.If the length of the conductor is made 4 times its original length, its resistance becomes (UHS MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (d) 4 times
Resistance is proportional to length, so four times the length is four times the resistance.
118.The unit of temperature coefficient of resistivity is (UHS MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (b) 1/K
It is a fractional change in resistivity per degree, so its unit is the reciprocal kelvin.
119.Conductance is reciprocal of resistance, its unit is: (NUMS MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (a) Siemen
Conductance is the reciprocal of resistance and is measured in siemens.
120.The fraction change in resistance per kelvin is: (NUMS MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (b) Temperature coefficient of resistance
That fraction is the temperature coefficient of resistance.
121.The value of temperature co-efficient of a conductor is zero. This indicates that with the rise in temperature, resistance of conductor: (SIBA MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (c) Remain same
A zero coefficient means the resistance does not change with temperature at all.
122.Terminal voltage of a cell equals its EMF only when: (UHS MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (a) No current flows
With no current there is no drop across the internal resistance, so the terminals read the full emf.
123.Internal resistance reduces the terminal voltage because it: (SIBA MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (b) Causes power loss inside the battery
Some of the emf is spent driving the current through the cell itself, and that part appears as heat inside it.
124.A high internal resistance battery is not suitable for heavy loads due to: (SZABMU MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (a) Excess voltage drop
A heavy load draws a large current, and the drop inside the cell then leaves little at the terminals.
125.The SI unit of magnetic flux is: (NUMS MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (b) Weber
Magnetic flux is measured in webers, one weber being a tesla square metre.
126.The magnetic flux through a loop of 1m^2 in a 0.5T magnetic field is same as magnetic flux through a loop of 0.5 m^2 in a magnetic field of: (SIBA MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (a) 1.0 T at 0°
Flux is $BA\cos\theta$, so $0.5\,\mathrm{m^2}$ facing a $1.0\,\mathrm{T}$ field square on gives the same $0.5\,\mathrm{Wb}$.
127.Magnetic force acting on a charge at rest is: (NUMS MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (a) Zero
The force is $qvB\sin\theta$, and a charge at rest has no velocity, so there is no force.
128.An electron is projected along the positive x-axis in a magnetic field lying in xz-plane. The magnetic force on the electron will act along the: (SIBA MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (c) y-axis
The force is along $qv\times B$, and with the velocity along x and the field in the xz plane the product lies along y.
129.The path of a charged particle in a plane perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field is: (NUMS MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (a) Circular
With the velocity always at right angles to the field, the magnetic force is centripetal and the path is a circle.
130.If mass of a charged particle is doubled, cyclotron frequency becomes: (NUMS MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (b) Halved
The cyclotron frequency is $qB/2\pi m$, so twice the mass halves it.
131.Basic requirement for induced emf is: (NUMS MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (d) Change in flux links to the coil
An emf appears only while the flux through the coil is changing.
132.EMF induced is zero when plane of coil is: (NUMS MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (a) Perpendicular to B
With the plane perpendicular to the field the flux is already at its maximum, so it is momentarily not changing.
133.A loop moves toward a stationary magnet. The induced current will: (UHS MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (b) try to stop the approach
By Lenz’s law the induced current opposes the change that made it, so it opposes the approach.
134.According to Lenz's Law, the direction of induced current in a conductor is such that it: (KMU MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (a) Opposes the change in magnetic flux
The induced current always sets up a flux that opposes the change producing it.
135.A conducting ring is placed near a current-carrying coil. As the current in the coil increases, the induced current in the ring flows: (SZABMU MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (c) To oppose increasing magnetic flux
By Lenz’s law the ring drives a current whose own flux opposes the rise.
136.In an ideal transformer, if the primary voltage is doubled and the turns ratio remains the same, what happens to the secondary current? (UHS MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (a) Doubles
The turns ratio doubles the secondary voltage too, and across the same load that doubles the secondary current.
137.In a step-up transformer, if the secondary voltage is increased by a factor of 10, the current in secondary coil will be: (SIBA MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (d) One-tenth of the primary current in transformer
Power is conserved in an ideal transformer, so ten times the voltage means a tenth of the current.
138.A phase difference of 90° is equal to: (UHS MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (b) π/2 radians
A full cycle is $2\pi$ radians, so a quarter of it is $\pi/2$.
139.In a pure capacitance AC circuit, the current: (KMU MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (b) Leads the voltage by 90°
A capacitor must be charged before a voltage appears across it, so the current runs a quarter cycle ahead.
140.If frequency of AC is doubled, the inductive reactance will: (SIBA MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (c) Be doubled
Inductive reactance is $2\pi fL$, so it is proportional to the frequency.
141.A capacitor is connected to an AC source. If the frequency of the AC source is doubled the current in a purely capacitive circuit will: (SZABMU MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (a) Be doubled
Capacitive reactance is $1/2\pi fC$, so twice the frequency halves it and doubles the current.
142.The wave that has the highest frequency & penetrating power is: (UHS MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (c) Gamma rays
Gamma rays sit at the top of the electromagnetic spectrum in frequency and penetrate the most.
143.Which of the following act as a semiconductor? (NUMS MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (b) Silicon
Silicon is the tetravalent element of which most semiconductor devices are made.
144.The current in forward biased PN junction is mainly due to: (SZABMU MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (a) Majority carriers
Forward bias narrows the barrier, so the majority carriers cross in numbers.
145.In a full-wave rectifier using two diodes, the diodes: (KMU MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (c) In alternate switching mode
Each diode conducts on the half cycle that makes its end of the secondary positive, so they take turns.
146.The process of converting AC into pulsating DC is called: (NUMS MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (c) Rectification
Rectification is the conversion of alternating current into a direct current that flows one way only.
147.The energy of a quantum is given by which equation? (KMU MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (b) E = hf
Planck’s relation gives the energy of one quantum as $E=hf$.
148.In photoelectric effect, stopping potential depends upon: (NUMS MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (b) Frequency of light
The stopping potential measures the maximum kinetic energy, which depends on the frequency alone.
149.If different colored light beams have same total energy, which color beam will contain the smallest number of photons? (SZABMU MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (a) Violet
Violet photons carry the most energy each, so the fewest of them are needed to make up the same total.
150.According to the particle model of light, a photon is: (SZABMU MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (b) A quantum of energy with zero rest mass and zero charge
A photon is a packet of energy with no rest mass and no charge.
151.The Balmer series of hydrogen spectrum appears in the (UHS MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (d) Visible region
The Balmer lines end on the second level and fall in the visible part of the spectrum.
152.In hydrogen spectrum, the Brackett series lies in (KMU MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (c) Infrared region
The Brackett lines end on the fourth level, and their photons fall in the infrared.
153.Which of the following spectrum is produced when atoms are in the gaseous state? (NUMS MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (c) Line spectrum
Free atoms of a gas emit at sharply defined frequencies, so the spectrum is a set of lines.
154.Quantized momentum was explained by: (NUMS MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (b) Bohr
Bohr postulated that the angular momentum of the orbiting electron is a whole multiple of $h/2\pi$.
155.The spectra obtained by absorption or emission of radiation by atoms of the gas: (NUMS MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (a) Atomic spectra
Spectra given out or taken up by free atoms are atomic spectra.
156.Two spectral lines in the Hydrogen atom spectrum are close together. This likely means: (SZABMU MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (b) The energy difference is small
Photon energy sets the frequency, so lines close together come from levels close in energy.
157.The protons in the nucleus of an atom DO NOT exit due to (UHS MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (b) Gravitational Force
Gravitation between protons is far too feeble to matter; it is the strong nuclear force that holds them.
158.Stability of radioactivity element is determined by: (NUMS MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (a) Decay constant
The decay constant is the probability of decay per second, so the smaller it is the more stable the nuclide.
159.After 3 half-lives, the remaining fraction of a radioactive sample is: (UHS MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (c) 1/8
Each half life halves what is left, so after three of them $1/8$ remains.
160.The time in which half of the given number of radioactive nuclei decay is known as (UHS MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (a) 1/2 life of radioactive element.
That time is the half life of the element.
161.Half-life of a radioactive element is 10 days. After 30 days, fraction remaining is: (NUMS MDCAT 2025)
Correct answer: (c) 1/8
Thirty days is three half lives, and each halves what is left, so $1/8$ remains.